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Here's the background: was pretty inactive as a youngster but started cycling 50 miles a week from March/April 2010 andthen running in March 2011 aged 15, started gently and ran maybe a couple of times a week but didn't take it seriously and only ran maybe 7-8 miles a week with no structured training. Started taking it seriously from September 2011 onwards till April 2012 when I had to stop running with shin pain. Was able to carry on cycling a good 3-4 months though.
Recently found out that my shin pain was simply 'growing pains' from the bone growing faster than the muscle and the shin attachments becoming inflamed. They have ruled out all other physiological causes with MRI and Bone scans etc. The consultant has given me the all clear to start training and said I may have to train through the pain a bit but it should subside naturally over the next year (18 soon) and training will do no damage at all.
I've been seeing a NHS physio for about 2 months now and he's had me doing loads of strengthening and stretching. 2 weeks ago went for my first run since September (even back then I was only just jogging and never got further than that). Shins were fine but my knees were hurting during the run. I ran on grass and did 4 x 2 minute jogs with 2 min walks in between. I ran again this afternoon and shins were fine which is good but once again my knees (above the kneecap) was flaring up a bit but subsided after the run.
My Physio isn't worried but surely if I build up to training hard again I'm worried about starting another injury if my knees can't handle 5 x 2 min jogs on grass now! I've never had any knee problems in the past at all, even when training 35mpw on road. I don't understand it. I understand I have probably deconditioned having been inactive for 6 months but when I started running I was a lot less conditioned than I am now after my rehab....
Thanks in advance!